1

What happens in the following scenario?

  1. A person sends all his funds from his KT1 contract* to his tz1 address
  2. The person withdraws all the tez from his tz1 address (both now have a balance of 0 tez)
  3. After a few cycles the person decides to send some tez to his original KT1 contract

Is this still possible or has the KT1 contract been destructed/destroyed in the meantime? Is this contract still delegated to the delegation service? Or is it advisable to delegate from the tz1 address instead? (Should've the user sent his new funds directly to his tz1 address?)

Just thought I'd address this frequently answered question since the Babylon update.

(*) contract is delegated to a delegation service

3

In a scenario where both the TZ1 and KT1 addresses have been emptied, you can still send funds to your KT1 address. The KT1 contract never gets destroyed. You will however need fund your manager account again (TZ1 address) in order to move the funds you just sent to your KT1 address.

The delegation would remain active as long as you don't change or cancel your delegation for that address. However I would recommend delegating from your TZ1 manager address.

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